SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH PHÚ YÊN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2008-2009 Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Đề thi có 04 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trên giấy thi, không làm bài trên đề. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY I. Pick out the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest ( 1 point ) 1. A. child B. choose C. cheat D. chemical 2. A. student B. stupid C. study D. studio 3. A. cleaned B. repaired C. planned D. laughed 4. A. dog B. sorry C. doctor D. worry II. Give the correct form of the word in brackets ( 1.5 points ) 1. This stamp (collect)…………is valuable. 2. The villagers welcomed the visitors (warm)………… 3. It was very (care)…………of you to break that coffee cup. 4. You can buy waste (produce)…………made from this factory. 5. How much do you (weight)…………? 6. It was (surprise)…………that he failed the exam. GRAMMAR I. Choose the correct answer ( 4 points ) 1. “ Do you have a bike ?” “ No, but I wish I………….one.” A. having B. have C. can have D. had 2. You and I went there together ,………….? A. didn’t you B. didn’t I C. didn’t we D. did we 3. John isn’t going to go, and Peter isn’t…………. A. too B. either C. also D. as well 4. She’d………….to buy that dress. A. like B. liked C. to like D. liking 5. We are too late. The plane………….off ten minutes ago. A. took B. has taken C. had taken D. was taken 6. Everyone looks much………….today than he did yesterday. A. happy B. happily C. more happily D. happier 7. I spent half a year………….this boat. A. to build. B. building C. built D. on building 8. Tommy suggested………….a pair of shoes for Dad on his birthday. A. buying B. buy C. to buy D. bought 9. The men and animals ………….you saw on TV were from Japan. Trang 1/4 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC A. who B. whom C. which D. that 10. I’m very proud………….my father. A. in B. of C. off D. to 11. I………….late for the meeting next week. So don’t wait for me. A. might be B. should be C. might D. must be 12. If I………….any problem, I………….ask for your help. A. has……will B. had……will C. have…. would D. have…… will 13. The meal………….when I came. A. was be cooked B. is cooked C. was being cooked D. is being cooked 14. He wonders………….with my heavy luggage. A. what I will do B. what will I do C. what I would do D. what I do 15. He ………….to find a job, but he had no luck. A. tried hard B. tried hardly C. hardly tried D. try hardly 16. The driver was…………. A. serious injured B. seriously injured C. injure seriously D. injured serious II. In these sentences, each one has four underlined words or phrases marked A,B,C and D. Choose the one word or phrase which must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. ( 1.5 points ) 1. When she lived (A) at a farm, Kate (B) used to get up early and (C) go to bed as the sun (D) went down. 2. Kin (A) missed her plane yesterday (B) because a traffic jam (C) on her way to (D) the airport. 3. Sara (A) speaks so (B) fastly that I (C) can’t understand (D) her. 4. (A) How many (B) information (C) did you (D) ask for ? 5. (A) Would you mind (B) to give me (C) a hand (D) with the bag ? 6. Pelé, (A) from Brazil, is (B) considered one of the (C) greatest football (D) player of all time. READING I.Read the passage and decide which answer best fits each space (2.5 points) Some people call it Britain. Others say (1)………….Britain. Many people mistakenly call the (2)………….country England. But its real name is a mouthful : the United Kingdom (3)………….Great Britain and Northern Ireland. That’s why it’s usually just called the United Kingdom, or UK for (4)…………. The United Kingdom is a (5)………….made up of four parts : England, Scotland, Wales, and (6)………….Ireland. For centuries, it was (7)………….by kings and queens. The United Kingdom still has a monarchy, although today its power is mostly symbolic. England is the biggest part, but don’t (8)………….the others. Each part was once ruled separately. Each has its (9)………….culture and its own native language, which some people still speak. Each even has its own national soccer (10)………….! 1. A. Big B. Great C. Huge D. Large 2. A. all B. most C. mostly D. whole 3. A. of B. in C. for D. with Trang 2/4 4. A. easy B. little C. short D. small 5. A. part B. place C. country D. continent 6. A. North B. Northern C. Northerner D. Northerly 7. A. lead B. ruled C. headed D. topped 8. A. miss B. leave C. forget D. remember 9. A. own B. personal C. private D. favorite 10. A. group B. crowd C. team D. troop II. Read the following passage and answer the questions( 2.5 points ) Dear Santa Claus, My name is Amy. I am nine years old. I have a problem at school. Can you help me Santa ? Kids laugh at me because of the way I walk and run and talk. I have cerebral palsy. I just want one day when no one laughs at me or makes fun of me. Love, Amy At radio station WJLT in Fort Wayne, Indiana, letters poured in for the Christmas wish contest. The workers had fun reading about all the different presents that boys and girls from across the city wanted for Christmas. When Amy’s letter arrived at the radio station, manager Lee Tobin read it carefully. He knew cerebral palsy was a muscle disorder that might confuse Amy’s schoolmates who didn’t understand her disability. He thought it would be good for the people in Fort Wayne to hear about this special third-grader and her unusual wish. Mr. Tobin called up the local newspaper. The next day, a picture of Amy and her letter to Santa made the front page of the News Sentinel. The story spread quickly. All across the country, newspapers and radio and television stations reported the story of the little girl in Fort Wayne, Indiana, who asked for such a simple yet remarkable regular at the Hagadorn house. Envelopes of all sizes addressed to Amy arrived daily from children and adults all across the nation. They came filled with holiday greetings and words of encouragement. 1. What was the problem with Amy ? A. She had no friends at school. B. She was laughed at by her schoolmates. C. She was a special muscular third-grader. D. She could not run and walk by herself. 2. Radio station WJLT A. was where Santa Claus worked B. had a contest for children who had disability at Christmas. C. received letters from children with problems. D. had a service for children at Christmas. 3. Lee Tobin A. didn’t understand Amy’s disability. B. was a kind person. C. worked for the local newspaper. D. worked with Santa Claus at Christmas. 4. When Amy’s letter was printed in the newspaper, A. she could have one day without teasing. Trang 3/4 B. children from her school sent her a lot of gifts. C. letters were sent to her from all over the world. D. people across the country sent letters with kind words to her. 5. What is Amy’s full name ? A. Amy Hagadorn. B. Hagadorn Amy C. Fort Amy D. Wayne Amy III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word ( 2.5 points ) It’s a marvelous idea for children to do some cooking at an early age. Generally speaking, most children can’t wait to help in the (1)………… and love getting involved in the preparation (2)………… their meals. They should be encouraged to do so, and care should be (3)………… to ensure they enjoy the experience. It is important to show them how to do things (4)………… but they shouldn’t be criticized too much. Although the finished (5)………… may not be quite to your liking, the young cook will undoubtedly find it the tastiest (6)………… he or she has ever eaten. Kitchens can, of course, be (7)………… places and so the absolute importance of keeping an eye (8)………… children at all times cannot be emphasized too heavily. Sharp (9)………… , for example, should be avoided until children are (10)………… enough to handle them safely. WRITING I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one( 2.5 points ) 1. His parents made him study for his exams. He was……………………………………. 2. We’d better buy a new cooker. It’s………………………………………… 3. I lent my car to that man. That’s……………………………………. 4. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday. He suggested……………………………. 5. Everyone heard about the accident before I did. I was the………………………………… II. Writing: - An English-speaking friend is coming to stay with you for the weekend. - Write a letter telling your friend about three ideas you have for her/his visit. - Write your letter in about 100 words. Do not write your name and your address. ( 2 points ) _______THE END_______ Trang 4/4 ĐÁP ÁN ANSWER KEY 1 PRONUNCIATION I. 1 pt 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D II. 1.5 pts 1. collection 2. warmly 3. careless 4. products 5. weigh 6. surprising GRAMMAR I. 4 pts 1. D 2.C 3. B 4.A 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.B 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.B II. 1.5pts 1.A 2. B 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.D READING I. 2.5pts 1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C II. 2.5 pts 1.B 2.D 3.B 4.D 5.A III. 2.5 pts 1. kitchen 2. of 3. taken 4. correctly 5. result 6. food 7. dangerous 8. on 9. knives 10. old WRITING I. 2.5 pts 1. He was made to study for his exams by his parents. 2. It’s time for us to buy a new cooker. It’s time we bought a new cooker. 3. That’s the man (whom) I lent my car to. 4. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday. 5. I was the last person to hear/know about the accident. II. 2 pts Trang 5/4 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH PHÚ YÊN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2008-2009 Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Đề thi có 04 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trên giấy thi, không làm bài trên đề. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY I. Pick out the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest ( 1 point ) 1. A. almost B. not C. gold D. post 2. A. uniform B. ticket C. tide D. inspiration 3. A. great B. bread C. break D. steak 4. A. cleaned B. repaired C. planned D. laughed II. Give the correct form of the word in brackets ( 1.5 points ) 1. A machine could do this much more (easy)…………… 2. Jim swims very well. He’s a good (swim)…………… 3. Do you know the (long) ……………of the garden ? 4. She tried to make a good (impress)……………on the interviewer. 5. How much do you (weight)…………? 6. It was (surprise)…………that he failed the exam. GRAMMAR I. Choose the correct answer ( 4 points ) 1. Our father won’t…………….us drive his car. A. allow B. let C. leave D. permit 2. Nga told me I would have an accident if I…………….more care. A. I’m not taking B. haven’t taken C. won’t take D. didn’t take 3. Lan showed me the house…………….she was born. A. which B. which in C. in where D. where 4. He drank only…………….water. A. a few B. much C. many D. a little 5. These are my…………….three children. A. brother Tim’s B. brother Tim C. Tim’s brother D. brother is Tim 6. Give me that magazine,……………. ? A. do you B. don’t you C. will you D. shall you 7. He speaks…………….good English that it is a pleasure to talk with him. A. so B. such C. such a D. very 8. The washing machine was expensive,…………….we couldn’t afford to buy it. A. however B. but C. because D. so Trang 6/4 ĐỀ DỰ BỊ 9. Mr. Long, …………….has just talked to you, is my uncle. A. who B. that C. whom D. whose 10. Tornadoes can suck up anything that is…………….their path. A. on B. in C. at D. for 11. She describes herself…………….a fashion designer. A. by B. as C. in D. from 12. He…………….with his friends in an apartment in Hue since last week. A. living B. has lived C. lived D. live 13. Must this test…………….on time ? A. finish B. finished C. be finished D. be finish 14. …………….do you prefer, T-shirt or pullover ? A. What B. How C. Which D. Where 15. Wearing uniform helps students…………….equal in many ways. A. fall B. feel C. fell D. felt 16. It’s time we…………….the bus. A. catch B. to catch C. catching D. caught II. In these sentences, each one has four underlined words or phrases marked A,B,C and D. Choose the one word or phrase which must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. (1.5 points ) 1. (A) In my first (B) day in Hanoi, my uncle (C) took me to (D) the Temple of Literature. 2. (A) What’s your (B) favorite food ? - (C) I’d like (D) fish. 3. They (A) often (B) have a dinner (C) at (D) half past six. 4. I can’t (A) give you (B) a lift (C) because my car is (D) repairing. 5. The best (A) ways to reduce (B) garbage is (C) to reuse and (D) recycle things. 6. What (A) time does (B) she have her (C) Physical class ? - (D) At 8.40. READING I.Read the passage and decide which answer best fits each space (2.5 points) Some people call it Britain. Others say (1)………….Britain. Many people mistakenly call the (2)………….country England. But its real name is a mouthful : the United Kingdom (3)………….Great Britain and Northern Ireland. That’s why it’s usually just called the United Kingdom, or UK for (4)…………. The United Kingdom is a (5)………….made up of four parts : England, Scotland, Wales, and (6)………….Ireland. For centuries, it was (7)………….by kings and queens. The United Kingdom still has a monarchy, although today its power is mostly symbolic. England is the biggest part, but don’t (8)………….the others. Each part was once ruled separately. Each has its (9)………….culture and its own native language, which some people still speak. Each even has its own national soccer (10)………….! 1. A. Big B. Great C. Huge D. Large 2. A. all B. most C. mostly D. whole 3. A. of B. in C. for D. with 4. A. easy B. little C. short D. small 5. A. part B. place C. country D. continent 6. A. North B. Northern C. Northerner D. Northerly Trang 7/4 7. A. lead B. ruled C. headed D. topped 8. A. miss B. leave C. forget D. remember 9. A. own B. personal C. private D. favorite 10. A. group B. crowd C. team D. troop II. Read the following passage and answer the questions ( 2.5 points ) Teeth do lots of things. They help you eat by chewing food. It’s the first step in the process of digestion. Teeth also help you talk. Say the word thirsty and the word little. Did you feel your tongue touch your upper front teeth ? You should have felt it on the th- and the –tle. You need your teeth to create certain sounds in speech. Teeth help determine how you look . They support muscles in your face. If you didn’t have teeth , your lips would go inward. Teeth are the hardest parts of the human body. They often survive long after the bones have decayed. Although they are hard, teeth can decay. Have you ever had a hole in a tooth ? It develops when tiny bacteria eat away at the enamel. Luckily, a dentist can fill the holes that bacteria make. Once a tooth decays, it can more easily break. That’s why it’s so important to keep teeth clean. Brushing your teeth helps get rid of bacteria and the bits of food that bacteria feed on. 1. Human teeth are…………. A. an important part of the digestive system. B. beautiful when you smile and talk. C. to make your lips full. D. what lucky dentists look after. 2. In order to pronounce the word thing, you need to…………. A. let your lips go inward. B. use your teeth together with your tongue. C. learn how to make a speech. D. support your face with your teeth. 3. How many main things teeth do to humans according to the 1 st paragraph ? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five 4. Teeth are……………. A. the hardest parts of the human body which survive forever. B. hard but they can also decay. C. too hard to break. D. filled by dentists when they decay. 5. We can avoid tooth decay by…………. A. living next to the dentist’s. B. feeding bacteria with food. C. keeping teeth clean. D. filling the hole ourselves. III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word ( 2.5 points ) Nearly all the discoveries that have been made through the ages can be found in books. The (1)……………….of the book is one of humankind’s greatest achievements, the importance of which cannot (2)……………….overestimated. Books are very adaptable, Trang 8/4 providing us (3)……………….both entertainment (4)………………. information. The production of books began in Ancient Egypt, though not in a form (5)………………. is recognisable to us today. The books read by the Romans , (6)………………., have some similarity to the ones we (7)……………….now. Until the middle of the 15 th century, in Europe, all books were (8)……………….by hand. They were often beautifully illustrated and always rare and (9)………………. . With printing came the possibility of cheap, large- scale publication and distribution of books, making knowledge (10)………………. widespread and accessible. WRITING I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one( 2.5 points ) 1. I didn’t arrive in time to see her. I wasn’t early……………………………… 2. “ Why don’t you put your luggage under the seat ? “ he asked. He suggested……………………………… 3. Turn off all switches before leaving the workshop. All the switches…………………………… 4. Mrs. Edwards is the owner of that car. That car……………………………………. 5. May I borrow your pen ? Would you mind…………………………… II. Writing: - An English-speaking friend is coming to stay with you for the weekend. - Write a letter telling your friend about three ideas you have for her/his visit. - Write your letter in about 100 words. Do not write your name and your address. ( 2 points ) _______THE END_______ Trang 9/4 ĐÁP ÁN ANSWER KEY 2 PRONUNCIATION I. 1 pt 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D II. 1.5 pts 1. easily 2. swimmer 3. length 4. impression 5. weigh 6. surprising GRAMMAR I. 4 pts 1. B 2.D 3. D 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.B 11.B 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.D II. 1.5pts 1.A 2. C 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.C READING I. 2.5pts 1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C II. 2.5 pts 1.A 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.C III. 2.5 pts 1. invention 2. be 3. with 4. and 5. that 6. however 7. read 8. written 9. expensive 10. more WRITING I. 2.5 pts 1. I wasn’t early enough to see her. 2. He suggested that I should put my luggage under the seat. 3. All the switches must be turned off before leaving the workshop. 4. That car belongs to Mrs Edwards. 5. Would you mind if I borrowed your pen ? II. 2 pts Trang 10/4 . DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH PHÚ YÊN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 20 08 -20 09 Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Đề thi có 04 trang. Thí sinh. accident. II. 2 pts Trang 5/4 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH PHÚ YÊN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 20 08 -20 09 Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Đề. pts 1. D 2. C 3. B 4.A 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.A 9.D 10. B 11.A 12. D 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.B II. 1.5pts 1.A 2. B 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.D READING I. 2. 5pts 1.B 2. D 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10. C II. 2. 5 pts 1.B 2. D 3.B