Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9 Hải Dương 2014-2015 - Học Toàn Tập

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Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9 Hải Dương 2014-2015 - Học Toàn Tập

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At the age of sixty-five, Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing a series of novels for young people based on her early experiences on the American frontier.. Seeking better[r]

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Page of Sở giáo dục v o to

hảI d-ơng

Kì thi chän häc sinh giái tØnh Líp THCS năm học 2014 2015

MễNthi : Tiếng Anh Thêi gian lµm bµi: 150

Ngày thi: 24/3/2015 (Đề thi gồm 06 trang) Thớ sinh làm vào tờ giấy thi, không làm vo

Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết ph-ơng án chọn A B, C, D

Phần tự luận : Viết đầy đủ theo u cầu (Thí sinh khơng đ-ợc sử dụng tài liệu gì.)

A. LISTENING

H-íng dÉn phÇn thi Nghe hiĨu:

Trong phần thi Nghe hiểu thí sinh nghe lần Mở đầu kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu Thí sinh có thời gian đọc câu hỏi trước nghe nội dung Mọi hướng dẫn (bằng tiếng Anh) có nghe

I You will hear five different people giving some information about what they Listen and decide what each person's job is

trainer reporter football player TV presenter champion

1 Speaker A : Speaker B : Speaker C : Speaker D : Speaker E :

II Listen to the conversation between two friends and fill in each gap with the missing information (10 points)

Bill : Hey, this is Bill I’m sorry I’m not in Just (6) a message

Hank: Hey, Bill This is Hank I’m just (7) to let you know that I’ll be a little (8) to the game tomorrow (9) I have to work a few extra (10) to finish a (11) I should wrap things up sometime (12) seven and eight though Oh, then I’m (13) on dropping by Lisa’s house for about an hour since she’s been (14) recently Oh, uh, one more thing I’ll swing by my house to (15) some food for the game See you then

B Phonetics

I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others ( 2.0 points)

16 A sacred B wicked C naked D stopped

17 A convenient B explosion C collapse D position

II Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others ( 3.0 points) 18 A surprise B distance C answer D spirit

19 A explanation B federation C computation D television

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20 A appreciate B participate C demonstrate D considerate C GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I Choose the word, phrase, or expression that best completes each sentence below ( 15 points) 21 My cousin runs a business……… he proves to have managerial skills

A but B and C however D moreover

22 What a ……… villa!

A nice big new B new big nice C new nice big D nice new big 23 Bob always talks as if he ……… everything

A knows B had known C knew D not know

24 As a teacher, I think that there’s no point in ……… lazy students

A to teach B teaching C teach D have taught

25 I think we should obey and respect our parents and teachers, ……… ?

A I B don’t I C should we D shouldn’t we

26 It’s high time you ……… harder to make you parents happy

A study B to study C studying D studied

27 After he ……… working, he turned off the machines

A finishes B had finished C has finished D was finished

28 Mrs Thuy can’t remember the name of the restaurant ……… she ate her favourite boiled chicken

A which B whose C where D whom

29 Jane always tries to ……… her neighbours

A take part on B take part in C get on with D come up with 30 Hoang is accustomed ……… for half an hour every morning

A to jog B to jogging C with jogging D being jogged

31 I got a bad mark in the English test last week I wish ……… I harder

A would study B studied C had studied D will study

32 Mrs Dao hates ……… lies

A be telling B to tell C being told D have been told 33 They ……… Mr David to let them use his car for some days

A said B talked C asked D suggested

34 The more you talk about the matter, ………

A the situation seems worse B the worse seems the situation C the situation seems the worse D the worse the situation seems 35 Tuan made an important ………

A decide B decisive C decision D deciding

II Give the right form of the words in brackets ( 5.0 points)

36 I have great ……… for her intelligence admire

37 Mr Cuong is a very ……… teacher Create

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39 It is becoming ……… clear that this problem will not be easily solved increase 40 I am sorry about the big mistake I ……… the instructions you gave me Understand III Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that need correcting ( 5.0 points ) 41 The simplest way to reduce pollution in the city is ban cars from downtown

A B C D

42 The letter was sent by special delivery must be important

A B C D

43 At first, they did not make out what the teacher was trying to explain, but gradual they

A B C D

began to understand

44 The four – days working week will certainly be a reality, so we will have more time for

A B C D

leisure activities

45 Daisy, along with her cousins from Manchester, are planning to attend the party A B C D

IV Match one sentence in column A with one appropriate response in column B Use each response only ONCE There are two extra responses (5.0 points )

A B

46 Would you recommend a place for sightseeing?

47 Would you like me to help you with the suitcase?

48 I’m fed up with this weather It’s so wet and unpleasant

49 Could I use your phone, please? 50 Let’s something special, shall we?

A I know We really need some sunshine, don’t we?

B Well, I would like to see that C What you fancy doing? D Yes, please, if it’s not bother

E How about Yellowstone National Park?

F I’m sorry, I need it myself G So I

D READING:

I-Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to complete each gap (10 points) During the (51) years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to They often seem to dislike being questioned They may seem (52) to talk about their work at school This is a normal (53) of this age Though it can be very hard for parents to understand, it is part of becoming (54) of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still growing up Young people are usually unwilling to talk if they believe that questions are trying to (55) up on them

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51 A childhood B teenage C recent D early

52 A unrestrained B unworried C unexpected D unwilling

53 A circumstance B appearance C development D achievement

54 A confident B independent C dependent D free

55 A check B catch C keep D make

56 A good B best C better D well

57 A put B allow C push D expect

58 A approach B experience C experiment D attach

59 A unusual B unacceptable C normal D exemplary

60 A appropriate B proper C important D necessary II Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the passage (10 points)

Food plays an important part in the development of nations In countries where food is scare, people have to (61) most of their time getting enough to eat This usually slows (62) progress, because men have little time to (63) to science, industry, government, and art In nations (64) food is plentiful and easy to get, men have more time to spend on activities that lead to progress and enjoyment of leisure The (65) _ of providing good food for everybody has not (66) _ solved Many wars have been fought for food But it is (67) longer necessary to go to wars for food Nations (68) _ beginning to put scientific knowledge to work for a (69) _ of their food problems They work together in the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) to (70) hungry nations produce more food

III Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question (5 points)

At the age of sixty-five, Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing a series of novels for young people based on her early experiences on the American frontier Born in the state of Wiscosin in 1867, she and her family were rugged pioneers Seeking better farm land, they went by covered wagon to Missouri in 1869, then on to Kansas the next year, returning to Wisconsin in 1871, and traveling on to Minnesota and Lowa before settling permanently in South Dakota in 1879 Because of this continuing moving, Wilder's early education took place sporadically in a succession of one-room schools From age thirteen to sixteen she attended school more regularly although she never graduated

At the age of eighteen, she married Almanzo James Wilder They bought a small farm in the Ozarks, where they remained for the rest of their lives Their only daughter, Rose, who had become a nationally known journalist, encouraged her mother to write Serving as agent and editor, Rose negotiated with Harper's to publish her mother's first book, Little House on the Big Woods Seven more books followed, each chronicling her early life on the plains Written from the perspective of a child, they have remained popular with young readers from many nations Twenty years after her death in 1957, more than 20 million copies had been sold, and they had been translated into fourteen languages In 1974, a weekly television series, "Little House on the Prairie ", was produced based on the stories from the Wilder books

71 What is the main topic of the passage?

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C A weekly television series D American pioneer life

72 The author mentions all of the following events in the life of Laura Ingalls Wilder EXCEPT

A She married Almanzo Wilder B She graduated from a one-room school C She went west by covered wagon D She had one daughter

73 Wilder's early education took place _

A for a long time B at irregular intervals

C with great success D in a very efficient way

74 The word they refers to

A many nations B the plains C more books D young readers

75 It can be referred from the passage that _ A Wilder's daughter was not a successful writer B the Wilders were not happy living in the Ozarks

C Laura Ingalls Wilder wrote scripts for the television series D the Wilders books have a universal appeal

E WRITING:

I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence given before it (5.0 points)

76 The programme was so successful that they decided to produce the 2nd season → So ……… 77 My father works in a company which has more than a thousand employers → There are ……….… 78 Keeping calm is the secret of passing your test

→ As long as ……….… 79 Thanks to her parents’ encouragement, she entered the beauty contest → Had it ……….… 80 You’re the best football player in our school

→ No one ……….…

II Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences about Tet holiday in Vietnam ( 10 points)

81 Tet holiday/ celebrate/ first day / Lunar New Year

82 Some weeks / New Year, / Vietnamese / clean / houses / paint / walls Then/ decorate/ house apricot blossoms/ peach blossoms

83 New things/ buy/ occasion /as clothes/shoes/ food

84 One / two days / festival, people make Chung Cake / be/ traditional cake 85 / New Year’s Eve, / whole family /get together / a dinner

86 / New Year morning, / young member / the family /pay / respects / the elders 87 In return, they /receive lucky money /wrap / red tiny envelopes

88 After/ people go / visit / neighbors, friends / relatives

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89 Tet/ not only/ time/ people/ relax/ after/ year/ hard work/ also/help family members/ friends/ relatives/ get closer

III “Mother’s Day and Father’s Day are not celebrated in Vietnam, but it is necessary for Vietnamese people to have a day for parents ”

Write a passage of about 120 – 150 words to your friend to share your idea (10 points)

========== The end ==========

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