1 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề. Ngày thi: 02/11/2012. Đề thi gồm 05 trang. PART A: LISTENING. You are going to listen to this telephone conversation between JON and JANICE and answer the questions. You should write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE. Areas dealt with: (1) _____________ , North suburbs Rent: from (2) £ _______ to £ 500 a month Depends on: the area availability (3) _________ . garage Properties available : West Park Road rent (4) £ ___________ a month including (5) _________ bill Tithe Road rent £ 380 a month including (6) _________ rental Viewing arrangements: meet at office on (7) __________ afternoon at 5.00 pm Need: letter from bank reference from your (8) ___________. Must: give (9) ___________ notice of moving in give deposit of (10) ___________ pay for contract PART B: PHONETICS. Identify the word whose main stress is different from that of the others in each group. 1. A. interest B. important C. decision D. relation 2. A. damage B. arrange C. pocket D. nature 3. A. eternal B. essential C. immoral D. practical 4. A. begin B. polite C. attend D. keenness 5. A. popularity B. investigate C. university D. similarity 2 PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the right word or phrase to complete the sentences. 1. Julie has ______ out of playing with dolls. A. developed B. moved C. removed D. grown 2. Mike ______ in for sailing after he made friends with Harry. A. got B. went C. put D. came 3. The other runners were too far ahead for us to _____ up with. A. catch B. go C. get D. turn 4. This is ______ road I’ve ever driven along. A. the bumpy B. the bumpiest C. the bumpier D. bumpier 5. Jack ______ better if he had had more time. A. could have done B. could do C. couldn’t do D. did 6. Keith is ______ taller than her brother. A. lightly B. delicately C. sparely D. slightly 7. I must go to the dentist and ______ . A. get my teeth to take care of B. take care of my teeth C. my teeth be taken care of D. get my teeth taken care of 8. The last time I went to the supermarket I ended ______ buying all the things I didn’t really need at all. A. in B. to C. by D. up 9. ______ 20,000 people are thought to have attended the concert. A. As much as B. More C. As many as D. Less than 10. ______ I cross the Channel by boat, I feel seasick. A. Though B. As soon as C. So that D. Whenever II. Choose a word or phrase in each of the following sentences that needs correcting. 1. Families who are enough fortunate to own a historic home may be able to get restoration funds from the A B C D government. 2. The first things a new international student must do include renting an apartment, registering for A B C classes, and to get to know the city. D 3. When parents allow his children to spend many hours watching television, the children are not likely A B C to be physically fit. D 4. Jessica is only an amateur, but she sings sweeter than most professionals. A B C D 5. Mrs. Adams was surprising that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski. A B C D III. Give the correct form of the word in blanket. MOVING HOUSE Moving house is said to be the third most stressful experience you can have (coming after the (1. DIE) ______ of a close relative, or a divorce). The reason for this is partly the (2- ORGANISE) ______ involved, but also the feeling of (3. SECURITY) ______ caused by completely changing your 3 environment. Of course, a (4. SYSTEM) ______ approach can help ease the difficulties, especially on the day of (5. REMOVE) ______. Plan your packing carefully or, better, employ a (6. RELY) ______ company to pack and move your things. This will (7. CERTAIN) ______ lessen the amount of damage to your (8. POSSESS) ______. It’s also a good idea to take out (9. INSURE) ______. Some worry is, of course, (10. AVOID) ______ but try to keep calm and look forward to life in your new home. PART D: READING I. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word. They call New York “the Big Apple”. Maybe it’s not (1) ______ like an apple, but it’s certainly very big. There are too many people, that’s the (2) ______. The street are always full of cars and trucks, and you can never find a (3) ______ to park. If you have enough money, you can take a taxi. New York cabs are yellow. They look all the same. But the drivers are very (4) ______. Some were born and (5) ______ up in New York, but many are (6) ______ to the United States. A few drive slowly, but most go very, very fast. Cab (7) ______ is a difficult job. It can be dangerous, too. Thieves often try to steal the drivers’ money. Drivers sometimes get hurt. If you don’t want to take a taxi, you can go by bus or you can take a subway. The (8) ______ is quick, and it’s cheap, but parts of it are old (9)______ dirty. Lights don’t always work and there are often fires on the track. On some subway lines, there are new, clean, silver trains. But you can’t see the color of the old trains easily. There is too much dirt and too much graffiti, inside and (10) ______. II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered gap in the passage below. School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out how much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a (1)______ that some people who are very academically successful don’t have any common sense? Intelligence is the speed (2)______ which we can understand and react to new situation and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing (3) ______ computer technology that will be able to ‘read’ our brains, (4) ______ tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person’s IQ is their intelligence (5) ______ it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are (6) ______ by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976, it (7) ______ 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, largely in the US. People taking the tests are judged in (8) ______ to an average score of 100, and those who score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at percent of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take the tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if (9) ______ enough time. But that’s the problem, the whole (10) ______ of the tests is that they’re against the clock. 1. A. case B. fact C. circumstance D. truth 2. A. on B. to C. in D. at 3. A. advanced B. forward C. ahead D. upper 4. A. at this age B. for the present C. at the time D. now and then 5. A. how B. that C. as D. so 6. A. appointed B. commanded C. run D. steered 7. A. held B. had C. kept D. belonged 8. A. concerned B. relation C. regard D. association 9. A. allowed B. spared C. let D. provided 10. A. reason B. point C. matter D. question 4 III. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow by choosing A, B, C or D. Cholera, a highly infectious disease, has resulted in millions of deaths time after time over centuries. It is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, first isolated by Robert Koch in 1883. The organism enters the body through the digestive tract when contaminated food or water is ingested. The bacteria multiply in the digestive tract and establish infection. As they die, they release a potent toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and vomiting. This results in extreme dehydration, muscle cramps, kidney failure, collapse and sometimes death. If the disease is treated promptly, death is less likely. In many countries, a common source of the organism is raw or poorly cooked seafood, taken from the contaminated waters. The disease is especially prevalent after a natural disaster or other destruction that results in a lack of fresh water. Sewer systems fail and waste travels into rivers or streams; piped water is not available so people must take their drinking and cooking water from rivers or streams. Because people frequently develop communities along waterways, the disease can be spread easily from one community to the next community down streams, resulting in serious epidemics. 1. The word infectious in the first sentence is closest in meaning to ______. A. communicable B. severe C. isolated D. common 2. According to the passage, cholera is caused by ______. A. a virus B. a bacterium C. kidney failure D. dehydration 3. All of the following are probable causes of infection EXCEPT ______. A. eating food cooked with contaminated water B. eating undercooked seafood C. eating overcooked pork D. eating raw oysters 4. According to the passage, what is a symptom of the infection? A. Release of a toxin by the bacteria B. Regurgitation C. Overeating D. Epidemics 5. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for this passage? A. Dysentery and its effects B. Water Purification Systems and Their Importance C. Results of Wars and Natural Disasters D. The Causes and Effects of Cholera 6. The word prevalent in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. dangerous B. commonplace C. unusual D. organized 7. The word lack in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. contamination B. multitude C. shortage D. well 8. According to the passage, cholera ______. A. is easily passed from one person to another B. is not a real threat C. is no more dangerous than the common cold D. cannot be passed from one to another by casual contact 9. What can you infer from the passage? A. Careful cooking and hygiene practices can reduce the chance of getting the disease B. Water mixed with other substances will not pass the disease C. The respiratory system is the most common area of entrance D. Kidney disease is the most common cause of the disease 10. The word epidemics at the end of the passage is closest in meaning to ______. A. studies B. illness C. bacteria D. plagues 5 PART E: WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. 1. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them. → I have …………………………………………………………………. 2. She has never been to the ballet before. → It is the …………………………………………………………………. 3. The result of the match was never in doubt. → At no time ……………………………………………………………… 4. Under no circumstances should you phone the police. → The last ……………………………………………………………………… 5. “You broke my bicycle, Minh!” said Hoa. → Mary accused …………………………………………………………. 6. I didn’t know you were coming, so I didn’t wait for you. → If………………………………………………………………………. 7. When I picked up my pen I found that the nib had broken → On……………………………………………………………………… 8. There is no danger that you will fall from the verandah → There is no danger of…………………………………………………… 9. The sea was so cold that we couldn’t swim in it. → The sea was too ………………………………………………………… 10. He felt too ill to get up. → He did not……………………………………………………………… II. Topic writing (from 150 to 200 words). Write a paragraph about “The importance of family in a person’s life”. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answers. The end 1 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THPT HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM (Gồm 02 trang) PART A: LISTENING 1. (the) city centre/ center (itself) 6. (the) telephone/ phone 2. 250 7. Wednesday/ Wed 3. (a) garden 8. employer 4. 325 9. two/ 2 weeks’ 5. (the) water 10. one/ 1 month(‘s) rent PART B: PHONETICS 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B PART C: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR I. Choose the right word or phrase to complete the sentences. 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. D II. Choose one underlined word or phrase that is incorrect. 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A III. Supply the correct form of the word in the blanket 1. death 2. organisation/ organization 3. insecurity 4. systematic 5. removal 6. reliable 7. certainly 8. possessions 9. insurance 10. unavoidable PART D: READING (30 points) I. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word 1. exactly 6. newcomers 2. problem 7. driving 3. place 8. subway 4. different 9. and 5. grew 10. outside II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered gap in the passage below 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 2 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B III. Read the passage and choose the best answer) 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D PART E: WRITING I. 10 points – 1p/ item 1. I have no intention of apologising to either of them/ I have no intention to apologise to either of them. 2. It is the first time she has been to the ballet. 3. At no time was the result of the match in doubt. 4. The last thing you should/ ought to/ must do is (to) phone the police. 5. Hoa accused Minh of breaking her bicycle/ Hoa accused Minh of having broken her bicycle 6. If I had known you were coming, I would have waited for you. 7. On picking up my pen, I found that the nib had broken. 8. There is no danger of your falling from the verandah. 9. The sea was too cold for us to swim in. 10. He did not feel well enough to get up. II. Topic writing: - Well-organised – - Few grammatical mistakes - Various grammatical structures and vocabularies * Total: 100 points. . PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2 0 12- 20 13 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề. Ngày thi: 02/ 11 /2 0 12. Đề thi gồm. 1 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2 0 12- 20 13 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THPT HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM (Gồm 02 trang) PART A: LISTENING 1. (the). (the) telephone/ phone 2. 25 0 7. Wednesday/ Wed 3. (a) garden 8. employer 4. 325 9. two/ 2 weeks’ 5. (the) water 10. one/ 1 month(‘s) rent PART B: PHONETICS 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B