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Problems Section 1 1. Chromosomal disorders do not manifest disease until late in life. A. True B. False 2. Genetic counselors currently do the majority of genetic counseling for patients A. true B. false 3. 6-mercaptopurine has been used successfullly to treat acute lymphocytic leukemia and inflammatory diseases, like Crohn's syndrome. However, 1 in 300 individuals have a toxic reaction. There has been signficant discussion about getting the FDA to require appropriate labeling. Why is that? A. 6-mercaptopurine taken with certain foods is toxic B. Individuals with sickle cell anemia cannot take 6-mercaptopurine C. Patients with homozygous mutations in the TPMT gene have a toxic reaction to 6- mercaptopurine 4. A patient is found to have a mutation for HNPCC, hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer and based on his pedigree, it is inherited, i.e it is found in other family members. How do you counsel him to deal with his genetic disease? A. Encourage him to tell his family B. Contact all of his first degree relatives and advise them to be tested C. Treat the disease and forget about the genetics Problems Section 2 1. How would the genetic content of the somatic cells of individual A, who is the product of a meiotic nondisjunctional event, differ from that of B, who experienced a mitotic error early in development? Avoid consideration of exceptional cases. a. A’s cells would be genetically heterogeneous; B’s cells would be genetically homogeneous. b. A’s cells would be genetically homogeneous; B’s cells would be genetically heterogeneous. c. A’s and B’s cells would be genetically heterogeneous. d. A’s and B’s cells would be genetically homogeneous. 2. How may these patients differ clinically, assuming the same autosome is involved in each case? a. A and B would develop clinical symptoms of similar intensity. b. A would be clinically affected, but B would be normal. c. A would be clinically affected. The degree of abnormality in B would depend upon the proportion of aneuploid cells present. d. B would be clinically affected, but A would be normal. 3. A man and woman have a daughter with Turner syndrome (45,X). The glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase genotypes of this family are: Father: G6PD A Mother: G6PD B G6PD B Daughter: G6PD A G6PD is X-linked. During which stage(s) of meiosis could nondisjunction have occurred? a. Anaphase I in the father c. Anaphase II in the father b. Anaphase I in the mother d. Anaphase II in the mother 4. Two of the following techniques have proven useful in accurately identifying each chromosome. Select the appropriate methods. a. Autoradiography b. G-banding c. FISH d. C-banding 5. Schematically outline meiosis in a male using one pair of autosomal alleles (A and a) and the sex chromosomes (X and Y). If a encodes an abnormal protein, predict the proportion of normal and anomalous gametes. a. ½ A,X ; ½ a,Y c. ½ a,X; ½ A,Y b. ¼ A,X ; ¼ a,X; ¼ A,Y ; ¼ a,Y d. ¼ A,X ; ¼ a,X; ½ A,Y 6. A female infant has trisomy (triplication) of chromosome 10. How would you express her karyotype according to standard nomenclature? Assume there are no other abnormalities in her karyotype. a. 46,XY,+10 c. 46,XX; 47,XX,+10 b. 47,XY,+10; 46,XY d. 47,XX,+10 7. Anaphase lag refers to loss of a chromosome during meiosis or mitosis due to failure to migrate to the proper pole of the dividing cell. Which of the following children most likely originated following mitotic anaphase lag? Semicolons separate karyotypes of different cell lines. a. 46,XX ; 45,XX,-21 c. 46,XX b. 47,XX,+21 ; 45,XX,-21 d. 47,XX,+21 8.You have received a report from a clinical cytogenetics lab stating that one of your patients has the karyotype: 46,XX,del(18)(q12). What does this mean? a. Male with a deletion of the short arm of 18 distal to band 12 b. Female with a deletion of the short arm of 18 distal to band 12 c. Male with a deletion of the long arm of 18 distal to band 12 d. Female with a deletion of the long arm of 18 distal to band 12 9. If this patient was fertile, how would you counsel the patient relevant to future children? Assume that there is no mosaicism for the alteration specified in (15), and that the alteration is present in the gametic cell line. a. The defect is sporadic and will not recur. b. About half of the male children only will inherit the same alteration. c. About half of the children, regardless of sex, will inherit the alteration. d. All of the children will inherit the alteration. Problems Section 3 1. A patient with a rare inherited syndrome was found to have 10% of normal enzyme “X” activity. Isolation and characterization of the erythrocyte form of the enzyme indicated that the mutant protein differed from its normal counterpart by a single amino acid substitution. The syndrome a. is due to a regulatory gene mutation. b. is caused by the presence of an inhibitor. c. is the result of an exonic base substitution. d. resulted from a failure in hormonal induction of gene activity. 2. Based upon your knowledge of biochemistry and genetics, which of the following observations would indicate that a hormone was specifically inducing enzyme “A” activity? a. An increase in enzyme “A” activity b. An increase in mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, and enzyme “A” activity c. An increase in enzyme “A” mRNA and enzyme “A” activity d. Accumulation of the hormone in the nucleus and the changes observed in 2b. Questions 3–10: Match the following with their appropriate functions in the cell. 3. rRNA a. Initiates protein synthesis 4. Polysome b. Shuttles amino acids to ribosomes 5. Promoter c. Pool including nuclear mRNA precursors 6. HnRNA d. Contains DNA elements influencing transcription of a gene 7. tRNA e. Aggregate of mRNA and ribosomes 8. Methionyl tRNA f. Structural component of ribosomes 9. UAA, UAG, UGA g. Orders amino acid sequences of proteins 10. mRNA h. Chain terminators 11. Outline transcription and translation using the appropriate base abbreviations and three code words. Start with DNA: AGCTCCAAA and use the table of the genetic code in your biochemistry textbook. 12. HbZ has an altered β-chain. The amino acid sequence is normal from residue 1 to residue 46 and from residue 70 to the end of the chain. Residues 47–69 do not match sequences from any known normal hemoglobin chains. How may this mutant hemoglobin arise? a. Substitution of a base in codon 47 b. Insertion of a base into codon 46 c. Deletion of a base from codon 47 d. Insertion of a base into codon 47 and deletion of a base from codon 69 e. Deletion of a base from codon 47 and insertion of a base into codon 69 13. Arylsulfatase A is deficient in patients afflicted with the progressive neurological disease, metachromatic leukodystrophy. You have successfully purified this enzyme and have prepared a specific antibody against it. You find that immunotitration of extracts of cells cultured from the patient’s skin demonstrates very low levels of arylsulfatase A protein. Mutations involving which of the following DNA sequences would explain the low levels of arylsulfatase A protein in this patient? a. The promoter of the arylsulfatase A transcriptional unit. b. An exon of the arylsulfatase A transcriptional unit. c. A gene affecting the intracellular distribution of arylsulfatase A. d. An exon-intron splice junction of the arylsulfatase A transcriptional unit. 14. Which of the following structures appear to be physical manifestations of the inactive X chromosome in interphase nuclei? a. Barr body c. Y body b. Nucleolus d. Sex vesicle 15. The genetic code consists of triplets derived from four different bases. The “degeneracy” of the code may generally be attributed to variation in a. the first nucleotide of the triplet. b. the second nucleotide of the triplet. c. the third nucleotide of the triplet. d. all three nucleotides. 16. A simple human gene is illustrated in the above diagram. This gene is transcribed from left to right. A mutation at the position of the arrow (asterisk = ATG) would most likely affect a. efficiency of transcription. d. stability of the mRNA. b. accuracy of transcription. e. initiation of mRNA translation. c. processing of the pre-mRNA. Problems Section 4 1. Given that base analogs result in the replacement of existing bases in DNA, predict the effect of such a substitution at the molecular level. a. A new amino acid may be inserted at the corresponding point in the polypeptide b. Chain termination may occur such that an incomplete polypeptide is formed. c. No change may result. d. A shift in the reading frame may occur. 2. Why have most attempts to improve the fitness of organisms through induced mutations failed? a. Mutagens are typically nonselective in their points of action. b. Most mutations are harmful. c. Inappropriate experimental systems have been used. d. Mammals are highly sensitive to these mutagens. Questions 3–7: Match the following mutagens with their nuclear effects. 3. X-rays a. Thymine dimers 4. Ultraviolet light b. Base substitution 5. Nitrogen mustards c. Alkylation 6. Base analogs d. Ionizations 7. Nitrous oxide e. Intercalation Question 8: True or False 8. The degree of radiation damage is greater in mitotically or meiotically dividing tissue than in nondividing tissue. 9. A mutant β-globin chain from a patient with hemolytic anemia contained 157 amino acids rather than the normal 146. The amino acid sequence of the mutant β-globin chain was identical to the normal chain through amino acid 135; however, the sequences after that point were markedly different. Describe the mutation most likely responsible for this patient’s disease. 10. The following patterns are observed for a DNA polymorphism after digestion of genomic DNA with the restriction enzyme Eco RI: in males, a fragment of either 9 or 11 kB; in females a fragment of either 9 or 11 kB or both. What is the likely origin of these patterns? Problems Section 5 1. A woman with facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FMD), an autosomal dominant trait, is seeking advice on having children. Her husband, who is 28 and normal, has an uncle with Huntington’s disease (HD; autosomal dominant). His parents are normal, and both are over 50. Symptoms of Huntington’s disease may appear from 12 to 65 years after birth; however, all HD members of his father’s kindred developed signs during their thirties. HD and FMD are fully penetrant. What are the genetic risks for this couple’s children? a. 50% FMD, 50% HD d. 100% FMD, 0% HD b. 50% FMD, 0% HD e. 50% FMD, 25% HD c. 0% FMD, 50% HD 2. Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by adenoma sebaceum (facial rash across bridge of nose), epilepsy, mental retardation, and risk for multiple tumors. The disease frequently causes early death, usually before age 21. Although penetrance is close to 100%, the disease is quite variable in expression. The disease is inherited as an autosomal dominant and affects about 1/10,000 persons. A normal woman with a slight reddening across the bridge of her nose has one child with the severe disease. What is her risk for a second affected child? a. About 0 d. 50% b. 10% e. 100% c. 25% 3. Demonstration of allelism in humans is difficult. Assume that two traits are codominant. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in suggesting they are determined by allelic genes? a. Failure of a person with both traits to transmit both to the same child b. Lack of occurrence of both traits in the same person c. Lack of a doubly affected child among offspring of two parents, each of whom has only one of the traits. d. Absence of normal children from marriages of doubly affected individuals to normal individuals. e. Both a and d above Question 4: True or False 4. A normal ancestry indicates that a trait is not hereditary—even if two or more affected siblings are present in a family. 5.Sickle cell trait describes individuals who are heterozygous for normal hemoglobin HbA and sickle cell hemoglobin HbS, ie, they are HbS/HbA. Two people have sickle cell trait and marry. Predict the possible phenotypes of their children and their frequencies. Note: sickle cell anemia occurs in HbS homozygotes. a. 1/4 sickle cell trait, 1/2 sickle cell anemia, 1/4 normal b. 1/2 normal, 1/2 sickle cell anemia c. 1/2 sickle cell trait, 1/2 sickle cell anemia d. 1/2 normal, 1/2 sickle cell trait e. 1/4 normal, 1/2 sickle cell trait, 1/4 sickle cell anemia 6. Phenylketonuria is a disease resulting from lack of the enzyme, phenylalanine hydroxylase. The clinical symptoms of mental and growth retardation, microcephaly, seizures, and eczema are limited to untreated homozygotes. Heterozygotes have intermediate levels of enzyme activity in liver extracts. Select the correct statement(s). a. Phenylketonuria is a recessive disease. b. Phenylketonuria is a dominant disease. c. Phenylketonuria is a polygenic trait. d. The effects of the normal allele are dominant to those of the abnormal allele. e. Both a and d above 7.The genes encoding the variant chains in HbS and HbC are allelic. Homozygosity for either gene results in anemia, with HbC disease being much less severe than sickle cell anemia. Heterozygosity for either allele and the allele determining the normal chain in HbA results in a normal phenotype. What would you predict for the β S β C heterozygote? a. No disease b. Anemia of intermediate severity with respect to sickle cell anemia and HbC disease c. Mild problems like HbC disease d. Sickle cell trait e. This combination of alleles would be fatal 8.A syndrome characterized by multiple congenital malformations and mental retardation was observed to occur twice in this kindred. What type of inheritance? a. Autosomal dominant c. Autosomal codominant b. Autosomal recessive d. Autosomal dominant, 2 loci 9. What type of inheritance is responsible for transmission of trait C in this pedigree: a. Autosomal dominant c. Autosomal codominant b. Autosomal recessive d. Autosomal dominant, 2 loci 10. A man has been working as an X-ray technician at a community hospital. He and his wife recently had a baby born with cystic fibrosis, an autosomal recessive disease. The man has brought suit against the hospital and radiologist, claiming that his occupational exposure to X-irradiation is responsible for the disease in their child. He supports his claim by saying there is no history of cystic fibrosis in his nor his wife’s families. As presiding judge in this case, how would you rule and why? Problems Section 6 1. The GYPA blood group contains three common phenotypes: M, MN, and N. Calculate the frequencies of the GYPA M and GYPA N alleles, if there are 600 M, 1,200 MN, and 200 N individuals in the population. Let p = the frequency of GYPA M and q = the frequency of GYPA N . a. p = 0.4, q = 0.6 d. p = 0.6, q = 0.4 b. p = 0.5, q = 0.5 e. none of the above c. p = 0.65, q = 0.35 2. Which of the following diseases tend to be unequally distributed (more frequent in certain populations than in others) among human populations? a. G6PD-deficiency d. Cystic fibrosis b. Tay-Sachs disease e. All of the above c. Sickle cell anemia 3. What factors may account for your answer in (2)? a. Large differences in mutation rates between populations b. Selective advantage of the heterozygote c. Genetic drift in small founder populations or inbred groups d. Experimental error in determining gene frequencies 4. Trait A is an autosomal dominant exhibiting 80% penetrance. Twenty-four affected children out of one million born to normal parents were observed over a period of 20 years at major hospitals in a western country. What is the apparent mutation rate? a. 3 x 10 -5 d. 1.2 x 10 -5 b. 1.5 x 10 -5 e. 1.9 x 10 -5 c. 2.4 x 10 -5 5. Do you feel your estimate in question 4 is biased? a. No. The estimate is correct. b. Yes, because of the possible lack of penetrance in the parents, some of the abnormal alleles were not mutations. The estimate may be too high. c. Yes, because of the selection of major hospitals only, a bias toward an overestimate or underestimate may be present. d. Yes, because of the lack of penetrance in the children, some of the mutations may have been missed. The estimate may be too low. 6. A population has the following ABO blood group distribution: A = 4,900, B = 1,000, O = 4,000, AB = 100. Calculate the frequencies of ABO A (= p), ABO B (=q), and ABO O (=r). p q r a. 0.32 0.05 0.63 b. 0.50 0.20 0.30 c. 1.00 0.20 1.00 d. 0.30 0.60 0.10 e. 0.49 0.11 0.40 7. Phenylketonuria occurs with a frequency of approximately 1/15,000 in Illinois (Illinois Department of Public Health). What is the frequency of heterozygotes in this state? a. 1/7,500 d. 1/62 b. 1/1,000 e. 1/25 c. 1/123 Question 8: True or False 8. Selection against the heterozygote will favor the more common allele. 9. Heterozygous advantage is believed to maintain stable polymorphisms in which the frequency of the rarer allele exceeds 1%. Which of the following diseases may be maintained by stable polymorphisms? a. Cystic fibrosis (aut. rec., 1/2,500) b. PKU (aut. rec., 1/15,000) c. Huntington's disease (aut. dom., 1/20,000) d. G6PD-deficiency (X-linked rec., 1/10 males of Asian, African, or Mediterranean ancestry) 10. Neighboring Indian tribes in Utah have quite different ABO frequencies. Tribe 1 is 100% Type O, and Tribe 2 is 95% Type A. Cultural barriers prevent marriage between the tribes, even though they are only a few miles apart. What factor is most likely responsible for the difference in allele frequencies? a. Selection c. Genetic drift b. Mutation d. None of these 11. Given that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive illness, that the hemizygous males are unable to reproduce, and that 1/3 of all X chromosomes are in males, calculate the frequency of this trait in males if the mutation rate is 1/25,000. Assume this population is at equilibrium. a. 1/75,000 c. 1/100,000 b. 3/25,000 d. 1/200,000 12. Suppose you are practicing where first cousin marriages are legally permitted. Two first cousins come to you for counseling, since they intend to marry. Their common grandfather is known to be heterozygous for an allele that causes severe mental retardation in homozygotes. What is the chance that their child will inherit two copies of this allele, both derived from the grandfather? a. 1/4 c. 1/16 b. 1/8 d. 1/64 13. What is the inbreeding coefficient for an aunt-nephew marriage? a. 1/4 c. 1/16 b. 1/8 d. 1/32 14. How is this value interpreted? a. It represents the proportion of heterozygous loci in a common ancestor (with respect to parents of child) rendered homozygous in a child by descent. b. It is the chance that an inbred child will inherit a deleterious dominant gene from an ancestor. c. It is the chance that an inbred child will develop a recessive disease caused by an allele present in an ancestor. d. This is the chance that a given locus heterozygous in a common ancestor will be rendered homozygous in a child by descent. 15. Genetic differences among races generally reflect a. presence or absence of alleles in one race, but not another. b. differences in relative frequencies of alleles among the races being compared. c. the effects of migration, isolation, and divergent evolution. d. the effects of diverse environments upon allele frequencies. Problems Section 7 1. True or False: Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels are diagnostic for neural tube defect. 2.A woman and her husband are carriers for the autosomal recessive disorder Tay-Sachs disease, thus, both have mutant HEX A genes and have requested first polar body diagnosis. PCR and DNA analysis have revealed the presence of a normal HEXA allele in the polar body. How would this result be interpreted? a. The oocyte also has the normal allele. b. The Tay-Sachs allele is in the oocyte. c. The oocyte contains both the normal and Tay-Sachs alleles. d. HEXA alleles are absent from the oocyte. Questions 3-9. Match the following screening methods with the disease they are designed to detect. 3. Method of obtaining fetal blood for karyotyping a. RH immune globulin b. 10 th week of pregnancy 4. Usual time at which amniocentesis is performed c. cordoentesis d. mosaicisim 5. Increased level when fetus has a neural tube defect e. 16 th week of pregnancy f. alpha feto protein in materal serum 6. Contains fetal cells viable in culture g. aneuploidy 7. Risk increases with maternal age h. cystic hygroma 8. Usual time at which CVS is performed i. Chrorionic villus 9. Derived from extraembryonic tissue j. amniotic fluid 10. A maternal serum screen performed on a pregnant woman shows reduced MSAFP, reduced unconjugated estriol and increased human chorionic gonadotrophin, you do which of the following: a. suspect a neural tube defect and order an ultrasound b. suspect down syndrome and order ultrasound to confirm age of the fetus, note the maternal age and suggest amniocentesis c. diagnose the fetus as having Edward’s syndrome d. order additional screens like pregnancy associated plasma protein Problem Section 8 1. Which of the following chromosomal aberrations is/are more frequently in abortice series than in liveborn populations? a. Sex-chromosomal trisomies c. X-monosomy b. Triploids d. Trisomy 21 2. Laboratory studies have revealed the following groups of mothers. The mother’s karyotype is provided at the left of the semicolon, and the baby’s at the right. A (/) separates karyotypes of two different cell lines in the same person. Assume all mothers are under 30 years of age. a. 46,XX ; 47,XY,+21 b. 45,XX,-14,-21,+t(14q21q) ; 46,XY,-14,+t(14q21q) c. 45,XX,-21,-21,+t(21q21q) ; 46,XX,-21,+t(21q21q) d. 46,XX (90%)/47,XX,+21 (10%) ; 47,XY,+21 Rank the mothers in order of increasing risk of recurrence of Down’s syndrome. a. abcd b. dabc c. cbda d. adbc Questions 3: True or False 3. Young mothers with two Down’s syndrome children are victims of fate and need not worry about having a third Down’s syndrome child until after age 40. 4. A man is a balanced carrier for a 13/14 Robertsonian translocation. Diagram the division figure that would be observed at Metaphase I of meiotic division. 5. List the chromosome combinations of gametes derived from adjacent and alternate segregation in his cells. 6. True or False: This man has a slightly elevated risk for having a child affected with Patau syndrome. Questions 7-11: Match the following karyotypes with their appropriate syndromes. 7. 47,XX,+21 a. Patau’s syndrome b. Balanced translocation carrier 8. 47,XY,+13 c. Translocation Patau’s syndrome 9. 46,XX,5p- d. Turner’s syndrome [...]... the results below, which change in hemoglobin primary structure is most likely to correlate with the clinical phenotype of anemia? a ile-leu-val to ile-ile-val b leu-glu-ile to leu-val-ile c gly-ile-gly to gly-val-gly d gly-asp-gly to gly-glu-gly e val-val-val to val-leu-val 3.An adolescent presents with shortness of breath during exercise and is found to be anemic A hemoglobin electrophoresis is performed... determined from the information given Problems Section 12 1 Which of the hemoglobin designations below best describes the relationship of subunits in the quaternary structure of adult hemoglobin? a (alpha1-alpha1)(beta1-beta1) b (alpha1-alpha2-alpha3-alpha4) c beta-beta-beta-beta d (beta1-beta2-beta3-alpha1) e (alpha1-beta1 )-( alpha2-beta2) 2.Blood is drawn from a child with severe anemia and the hemoglobin... B are trans Assuming the traits are linked, which individuals are recombinants? a b c d e II-1, II-2, II-4, III-1, III-4 II-3, III-2 II-1, II-4, III-3 II-2, III-3, III-4 There are insufficient data to determine recombinants 6.The F8 gene encodes a clotting factor and is closely linked to G6PD , a second enzyme-encoding locus, on the X chromosome The daughter of a hemophiliac male (factor 8 deficiency)... 6 Their third child will have normal intelligence Their third child will have moderate to severe mental retardation Risk to their third child will be somewhat higher than 14% if they have a son Risk to their third child will be somewhat lower than 14% if they have a daughter Both c and d above A woman’s first pregnancy produced an anencephalic child Her second child is normal, and her third child has...46,XX ,-1 4,+t(13q14q) 45,XY ,-1 4 ,-2 1,+t(14q21q) e f g Edward’s syndrome Down’s syndrome Cri-du-chat syndrome h 10 11 Klinefelter’s syndrome Problems Section 9 1 Which of the following chromosome errors would be the most benign relevant to their clinical manifestations? a b c 2 Even-numbered polyploids Odd-numbered polyploids X-monosomy d e Autosomal trisomies Sex chromosomal... Which of the following steps in the biosynthesis of cholesterol is thought to be rate-controlling and the locus of metabolic regulation? a geranyl pyrophosphate- farnesyl pyrophosphate b squalene- lanosterol c Lanosterol cholesterol d 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoAmevalonic acid e Mevalonic acid geranyl pyrophosphate Problems Section 22 1 The “Big Five” is a method used to measure certain personality... not in others Fetuses exhibiting signs of teratogen-induced defects will display variable expressivity of the abnormalities involved d 4 Teratogenic drugs will have stage-specific effects on embryos and fetuses Trait X occurs among 40% of first-degree relatives, 20% of second-degree relatives, and 10% of thirddegree relatives The population incidence of this trait is 1/5,000 persons What type of inheritance... deficiency d e LDL-receptor deficiency All of the preceding 6 A couple has a child who has been diagnosed with a medium chain acyl coenzyme A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCAD), a condition that affects the body’s ability to metabolize medium chain fatty acids This couple is now expecting another child Given what you know about the inheritance of metabolic disorders, what is the risk that this child will have... trait inheritance is most likely responsible for in the above pedigree? a X-linked Autosomal dominant b X-linked recessive dominant c 6 Autosomal recessive e d Y-linkage Based upon what you know relevant to X-linkage and the properties of X-linked genes, what would you expect for the phenotype of a woman heterozygous for an X-linked recessive trait with specific effects, such as G6PD deficiency? a She... tRNAs AGCUCCAAA polypeptide H2N-Ser-Arg-Phed,e a,b,c,d a c e Answers for section 4: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 a,b,c a,b d a c,b b b True Cell division is required for consolidation of a mutation 9 This patient or an ancestor experienced a mutation, which produced an insertion or deletion of one or two bases in the nucleotide triplet specifying the 136th amino acid of the β-globin chain This alteration produced a . anemia? a. ile-leu-val to ile-ile-val b. leu-glu-ile to leu-val-ile c. gly-ile-gly to gly-val-gly d. gly-asp-gly to gly-glu-gly e. val-val-val to val-leu-val 3.An. hemoglobin? a. (alpha1-alpha1)(beta1-beta1) b. (alpha1-alpha2-alpha3-alpha4) c. beta-beta-beta-beta d. (beta1-beta2-beta3-alpha1) e. (alpha1-beta1 )-( alpha2-beta2) 2.Blood